Hello

I work in a company and we buy goods from EU contries and sell in other EU contries.
Often we do triangulation but rules are very simple.
My question is: If a EU company (Portugal, for intance) decides to buy in the UK and immediatly sell in the UK, and the goods never leave the country, should we pay and charge UK VAT?
In France and Belgium we don't pay or charge. It's zero rated.
I know that when we buy and the goods actually go from one contry to another, is zero rated. Without movement of goods it's the same rule?

What is reverse charge?


Thanks
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1. If the goods remain in the UK, and the value exceeds the UK VAT registration threshold, the supplier must register for (and charge) UK VAT. I would need to receive more details to advise in more detail.

2. The Reverse Charge is threefold. The real Reverse Charge is on services. If a business receives certain services from overseas, it is obliged to consider the PURCHASE as also being a SALE (effectively a sale to itself). For a UK buyer, it even counts towards the SALES total for the UK VAT registration threshold! If the buyer is a UK VAT registered business, it must charge UK VAT on the notional sale to itself, though this VAT can be recovered in accordance with your usual VAT recovery rules.

There are also Reverse Charges on certain goods supplied with the UK (e.g. mobile phones).

There is also Acquisition VAT which is (rarely) referred to as a Reverse Charge, which involves goods being brought into one EC country from another EC country. The buyer should account for the VAT on the goods entering the destination country as if charging the VAT to itself. This Acquisition VAT can be reclaimed in accordance with its usual VAT recovery rules.

Hope it helps?
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